Question 14.4: A firm has a total asset value of 500. The expected rate of ...

A firm has a total asset value of 500. The expected rate of growth of this asset value is 10% per annum, whilst its volatility is 30% per annum. If the firm’s total borrowing consists of a fixed repayment of 300 that must be made in exactly one year’s time, what is the probability that the firm will be insolvent at this point?

The blue check mark means that this solution has been answered and checked by an expert. This guarantees that the final answer is accurate.
Learn more on how we answer questions.

Merton’s model gives the probability of default at time T as:

Pr(X_T\leq B)=\Phi \left(\frac{\ln (B/X_0)-(r_X-\sigma _X^2/2)T}{\sigma _X\sqrt{T} } \right) .

For this firm, B = 300, X_0 = 500, r_X = 0.10, \sigma _X = 0.30 and T = 1  Substituting these values into the above equation gives:

Pr(X_1\leq 300)=\Phi \left(\frac{\ln (300/500)-[0.10-(0.30^2/2)]}{0.30}\right)=0.0296.

The probability of insolvency is therefore 2.96%.

Related Answered Questions