Question 14.10: A $12,000 investment with no salvage value will return annua...

A \$12,000 investment with no salvage value will return annual benefits for six years. Assume straight- line depreciation and a 46\% income tax rate. Solve for both before- and after-tax rates of return for two situations:

1. No inflation: the annual benefits are constant at \$2,918 per year.

2. Inflation equal to 5\%: the benefits from the investment increase at this same rate, so that they continue to be the equivalent of \$2,918 in real dollars based in Year 0.

year annual benefits for both situations (real dollars) No inflation, Actual
Dollars Received
5\% Inflation

Factor*

5\% Inflation , Actual
Dollars Received
1 \$2,918 \$2,918 (1.05)^{-1} \$3,064
2 2,918 2,918 (1.05)^{-2} 3,217
3 2,918 2,918 (1.05)^{-3} 3,378
4 2,918 2,918 (1.05)^{-4} 3,547
5 2,918 2,918 (1.05)^{-5} 3,724
6 2,918 2,918 (1.05)^{-6} 3,910

∗May be read from the 5\% compound interest table as (F/P,5\%,n).

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Before-Tax Rate of Return

Since both situations (no inflation and 5\% inflation) have an annual benefit, stated in real dollars, of \$2,918, they have the same before-tax rate of return.

PW of cost = PW of benefit
12,000 = 2,918(P/A, i, 6)              ( P/A, i, 6) =\frac{12,000}{2,918}=4.11

From compound interest tables: before-tax rate of return equals 12\%.
After-Tax Rate of Return, No Inflation

Year Before-Tax
Cash Flow
Straight-Line
Depreciation
Taxable

Income

46\% Income Taxes Actual Dollars,
and Real Dollars,After-Tax Cash Flow
0 -\$12,000 -\$12,000
1-6 +2,918 \$2,000 \$918 -\$422 2,496

PW of cost = PW of benefit
12,000 = 2,4\%(P/A, i, 6)         ( P/A, i, 6) = ( P/A, i, 6) =\frac{12,000}{2,496}=4.81

From compound interest tables: after-tax rate of return equals 6.7\%.
After-Tax Rate of Return, 5\%  Inflation

Year Before-Tax

Cash Flow

Straight-Line

Depreciation

Taxable Income 46\%
Income Taxes
Actual Dollars,
After-Tax Cash Flow
0 -\$12,000 -\$12,000
1 +3,064 \$2,000 \$1,064 -\$489 +2,575
2 +3,217 2,000  1,217 -560 +2,657
3 +3,378 2,000 1,378 -634 +2,744
4 +3,547 2,000 1,547 -712 +2,835
5 +3,724 2,000 1,724 -793 +2,931
6 +3,910 2,000 1,910 -879 +3,031

Converting to Year-0-Based Dollars and Solving for Rate of Return

Year Actual Dollars,
After-Tax Cash Flow
Conversion
Factor
Real Dollars,
After-Tax Cash Flow
Present Worth
at 4\%
Present Worth
at 5\%
0 -\$12,000 -\$12,000 -\$12,000 -\$12,000
1 +2,575 ×(1.05)^{-1} = +2,452 +2,358 +2,335
2 +2,657 ×(1.05)^{-2} = +2,410 +2,228 +2,335
3 +2,744 ×(1.05)^{-3} = +2,370 +2,107 +2,186
4 +2,835 ×(1.05)^{-4} = +2,332 +1,993 +2,047
5 +2,931 ×(1.05)^{-5} = +2,297 +1,888 +1,919
6 +3,031 ×(1.05)^{-6} = +2,262 \frac{+1,788}{}

+362

\frac{+1,688}{}

-25

Linear interpolation between 4\% and 5\%:

After-tax rate of return = 4\% + 1\% × [362/(362 + 25)] = 4.9\%

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