Holooly Plus Logo

Question 4.1.5: Consider a linear force-free magnetic field with the poloida......

Consider a linear force-free magnetic field with the poloidal flux function

Ψ(x, y) = \frac{B_{0}}{k} \cos (kx) exp(−κy), κ^{2} = k^{2} − α^{2} > 0,         (4.14)

and with B_{z} = αΨ , inside the domain given by y > 0,−π/2k < x < +π/2k. It represents a magnetic “arcade” as shown in Figures 4.2 and 4.3.

a) Derive the excess magnetic energy of this configuration as a function of the force-free parameter α.

b) Prove by a direct calculation, that, if α is changing with time, the variation of the excess magnetic energy is equal to the Poynting flux injected into the base of the arcade at y = 0.

FIGURE 4.2
FIGURE 4.3
Step-by-Step
The 'Blue Check Mark' means that this solution was answered by an expert.
Learn more on how do we answer questions.

a) From equation (4.14), the magnetic field components of this configuration are equal to:

B_{x} = \frac{∂Ψ}{∂y} = −B_{0} \frac{κ}{k} \cos(kx) exp(−κy),

B_{y} = −\frac{∂Ψ}{∂x} = −B_{0} \sin(kx) \exp(−κy),        (4.15)

B_{z} = αΨ = B_{0} \frac{α}{k} \cos(kx) \exp(−κy)

A straightforward calculation yields the following magnetic energy (per unit length along the z-axis),

W_{M} = \int_{−π/2k}^{π/2k} dx \int_{0}^{∞} dy \frac{B^{2}}{8π} = \frac{B^{2}_{0}}{16k^{2}(1 − α^{2}/k^{2})^{1/2}}        (4.16)

It can be seen from equation (4.16) that the magnetic energy is minimal for α = 0, which corresponds to a potential magnetic field with B_{z} = 0 (shown in Figure 4.2). Note that magnetic flux distribution at the base of the arcade, y = 0, does not depend on α. Therefore, the magnetic energy variation with the force-free parameter α is in full agreement with the general consideration for the excess magnetic energy given in Problem 4.1.3. Hence, for this configuration the excess energy is equal to

\Delta W_{M} = W_{M}(α) −W_{M}(0) = \frac{B^{2}_{0}}{16k^{2}} \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 − α^{2}/k^{2}}} − 1 \right)

b) Each magnetic field line of the arcade, defined by the equation Ψ(x, y) = const, can be more conveniently labeled by x_{0}: the x-coordinate of its footpoints at y = 0 (see Figure 4.3) (they relate to each other by Ψ= \frac{B_{0}}{ k} \cos(kx_{0})). A non-potential field with a non-zero α has these footpoints being shifted in z-direction on ±z(x_{0}). The non-potential arcade as a whole bulges upwards since the characteristic height, κ^{−1} = k^{−1}(1−α^{2}/k^{2})^{−1/2}, increases with α. Quantatively, the shearing of magnetic  field lines in z-direction can be derived as

2z(x_{0}) = \int_{−x_{0}}^{+x_{0}} dz = \int_{−x_{0}}^{+x_{0}} \frac{B_{z}}{B_{x}} dx

with the integral being carried out along the field line Ψ = const = (x_{0}). By making use of expressions for B_{z} and B_{x} in equation (4.15), one gets

z(x_{0}) = − \frac{α}{κ} x_{0} = − \frac{α}{k(1 − α^{2}/k^{2})^{1/2}} x_{0}        (4.17)

Note that this shift is negative for the right-hand side footpoint and positive for the left-hand side one, as shown in Figure 4.3.

Assume now that this shearing is provided by some external force that slowly moves magnetic footpoints, such that their z-coordinates vary with time. Then, the magnetic arcade will evolve through a sequence of the force-free equilibria (4.14), with the parameter α varying with time in accordance with the relation (4.17). Thus, we have

v_{z}(x_{0}) = \frac{dz(x_{0})}{dt} = − \frac{x_{0}}{k} \frac{d}{dt} [ \frac{α}{(1 − α^{2}/k^{2})^{1/2}} ] = − \frac{dα/dt}{k(1 − α^{2}/k^{2})^{3/2}} x_{0}        (4.18)

These flows at the base of the arcade lead to Poynting flux of energy \vec{P} into the arcade, with the relevant component P_{y} equal to P_{y}|_{y=0} = \frac{c}{4π} (E_{z}B_{x} − E_{x}B_{z})_{y=0}. In a perfectly conducting fluid \vec{E} = − \frac{1}{c} (\vec{v} × \vec{B}).

Thus, for the z-velocity of equation (4.18), E_{z}|_{y=0} = 0, E_{x}|_{y =0} = \frac{1}{c}(v_{z}B_{y})|_{y=0}, and hence

P_{y}|_{y=0} = − \frac{v_{z}}{4π} (B_{y}B_{z})|_{y=0} = \frac{B^{2}_{0}}{4πk^{2}} \frac{αdα/dt}{(1 − α^{2}/k^{2})^{3/2}} x_{0} \sin(kx_{0}) \cos(kx_{0})

This yields the total power supply into the arcade

\frac{dW}{dt} = \int_{−π/2k}^{π/2k} P_{y}|_{y=0}dx_{0} = \frac{B^{2}_{0}}{16k^{4}} \frac{αdα/dt}{(1 − α^{2}/k^{2})^{3/2}},

which, according to equation (4.16), is equal to the rate of change of its  magnetic energy.

Related Answered Questions

Question: 4.3.6

Verified Answer:

Consider a planar magnetic field invariant along t...
Question: 4.2.1

Verified Answer:

For a small amplitude wave, the linearized equatio...